Was wondering if someone could explain the answer to me about the diagram they give?

The diagram shows that in Hemophilia A (mom is carrier) that there is 50% chance to have a male with Hemophilia A.

Isn't this wrong? If mom has 50% of passing Hemophilia A chromosome and there is a 50% of having a male child then overall probability is 25% not 50% (as explained in Question ID 5207).